View Full Version : Does wishing follow the no limits fallacy rule?
_Peksi
04-08-2012, 06:01 AM
Yea it does.
Genie can't make someone omnipotent since Genie himself isn't omnipotent for example.
For another example lets say "wish machine" has shown to be able to grant a wish like "create a new planet" it's plausible that it could grant a wish like "create 5 planets" but it being able to grant a wish like "greate a galaxy" would be a no-limit-fallancy.
the endless
04-08-2012, 08:32 AM
Goku uses Dragonballs and wishes to become multiverse buster, does it work?
_Peksi
04-08-2012, 08:50 AM
How so?
'cus assuming character/object can do something that's far beyond anything it has shown to do=no-limits-fallancy
Ultimate combatant
04-08-2012, 11:20 AM
Goku uses Dragonballs and wishes to become multiverse buster, does it work?
No, I don`t think that can happen. Otherwise Z fighters would`ve done it to all the villains!!! :D
The Immortal Watch Dog
04-08-2012, 11:28 AM
How so?
The wisher can only be given powers that would be within the shown feats of the Genie/magical objects/entity/ spell/etc etc to grant.
You cannot claim more than that basically.
Whatever.Guess this can be locked then or whatever.
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